"Modern Western society views the expression of sexuality as a primary component of human identity. As each autonomous individual can form his own happiness and welfare, sex is an essential component of human flourishing.As sex leads to the creation of life, it is indeed an essential human act. Yet the West is currently trying to isolate sex as a pleasurable, inconsequential form of recreation. The paradox rests in the very fact that it becomes banal, while also life-affirming and essential to our identities.
The issue rears its head in the latest definition of “pedophila” in the fifth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM V). In it:
the American Psychological Association (APA) drew a very distinct line between pedophilia and pedophilic disorder. Pedophilia refers to a sexual orientation or profession of sexual preference devoid of consummation, whereas pedophilic disorder is defined as a compulsion and is used in reference to individuals who act on their sexuality.Now, “unconsummated pedophila” is just an orientation. As Father Z clarifies, when a society changes the language, they are also affecting the definition. It is now imperative that we tolerate “pedophilia.”
The reason we must accept such perversion is that “people must be allowed to celebrate sex and sexuality, ‘one of the few freely-given pleasures in life,’” as spokesperson Paul Christiano of B4U-ACT said to NeonTommy.com, a university news site for the USC Annenberg School of Communications. The group advocates for “‘minor-attracted persons’ to be open about their sexual preferences in a supportive atmosphere.”
Christiano insisted that the group doesn’t advocate illegal activity. I’d certainly hope not.
Yet if being attracted toward minors is only an orientation now, how soon until we must accept the practice of pedophilia as a right to define oneself? After all, sex is one of the “few freely-given” pleasures in life.
For now, the law of the land stands. But how long until statutory rape becomes another form of institutional oppression by the majority against a vulnerable minority?"
Now, tell me I am being paranoid, but I find this a very alarming prospect going forward.
Think about this for one minute. Paedophilia as a sexual orientation.
Sexual Orientation, as highlighted here is defined as "an enduring personal quality that inclines people to feel romantic or sexual attraction (or a combination of these) to persons of the opposite sex or gender, the same sex or gender, or to both sexes or more than one gender" We all know this better as "LGBT" (Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual or Transgender) - these are the four different sexual orientations there are (you can be straight, gay, bi or trans - there are no other that I am aware of).
I presume then - please feel free to correct my ignorance - that there is no such thing as a gay or straight paedophile? Assuming for one moment, that it is actually an orientation, people fall into one type of sexual orientation. You cannot be both heterosexual and homosexual for example. It doesn't work.
How the hell does paedophilia fall into a "sexual orientation" - does this mean then, disgusting as it sounds, that paedophiles have no preference between male and female children? (I look forward to see if anyone chooses to comment and answer this - being as quite a few of my posts are picked apart on other blogs including OSC for example. Leave a comment, I'd be interested to see). How has the DSM/APA reached this (quite bizarre) conclusion? Children as a whole do not fall onto a single gender, so how has this happened? Does this mean that every sexual preference, every sexual attraction, no matter what, can from now on be referred to as a specific "orientation"? What about an attraction to overweight people, to tall, short, skinny, black, white, big bums, the elderly, blondes - the list goes on. None of these can really be called a "sexual orientation", yet using the method that the APA / DSM have used, they could all be classified as separate sexual orientations. What's the difference, for example, between a 30 year old being sexually attracted to a child, and a 30 year old being attracted to an 80 year old? One is now classified as a "sexual orientation" (according to APA), and one is not.
Does this mean then, disgusting as it sounds, that paedophiles have no preference between male and female children? I look forward to see if anyone chooses to comment and answer this - being as quite a few of my posts are picked apart on other blogs including OSC for example. Leave a comment, I'd be interested to see.
So, what else does this mean, what can we expect next?
Well, of course, as this has now officially been reclassified (in the US at least), can we now assume that as well as being LGBTP), that the same Human Rights concerned with sexual orientation that all people quite rightly have, will now be used by paedophiles as well? Can we assume, going forward, that there will one day be no discrimination against paedophiles, who for example, apply to be teachers? Can we assume, for example, that there will one day be no discrimination against paedophiles, who apply to work in any profession with children?
No I hear you say?
Want a bet?
Read the link again "Human Rights" and in particular this part:
"The right to work is the most affected among the economic rights, many lesbians, gays and bisexuals being fired because of their sexual orientation or discriminated in employment policies and practices."
Once upon a time in the
There are rules and regulations against discriminating against specific sexual orientations. You can bet your bottom dollar that such organisations as B4U-ACT and similar will be pushing all the way to make sure that paedophilia will enjoy exactly the same rights as any other sexual orientation in this way.